I have an iPhone and an iPad equally with iOS 5. I'm a little dissatisfied in iMessage in that I can’t tell my iPad to take delivery of iMessages sent to my cell phone number. I do have my cell phone put to receive from both apple ID & phone number while my iPad can merely be set to take delivery of from apple ID. So, would it be the mainly logical thing to place the caller ID for messages on my iPhone to be my apple ID? One would think this would have been the default setting. What occur when I have this wet to my apple ID and I send a message to somebody without iMessage and iOS 5?
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