BSNL JTO Exam paper patterns and books

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Following Are Bharath Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) Junior Telecom Officers (JTO) Exam Paper::–
If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular
Answer is :- Rectangular

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None
Answer is :- It is dimensionless

2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
Answer is :- high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
Answer is :- Air

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
Answer is :- C a V-1/3

5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
Answer is :-A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET
Answer is :- Forward biased pn junction diode

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
Answer is :- Near the transformer

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Answer is :- Increased

9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps
Answer is :- Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias
Answer is :- Gate reverse bias

11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
Answer is :- 105

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats
Answer is :- has a constant voltage across it

13. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
Answer is :- IC/IE

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none
Answer is :- high input impedance

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
Answer is :- both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width
Answer is :- Pair of four layer SCRs

17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
Answer is :- 103/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem
Answer is :- Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode
Answer is :- TE01 mode

20. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1
Answer is :-AD – BC = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position
Answer is :- double stub

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network
Answer is:- only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
Answer is :- L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
c) —
d) h12
Answer is :- Z12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
Answer is :-Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
Answer is :-90 – 105 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding
Answer is :- Inductive loading

28. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
Answer is :- 70 W

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W
Answer is :- 25W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
Answer is :- directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560
Answer is :- 2.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index
Answer is :- Polystyrene

1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces -
Answer is :- b) Electric field

2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is -
Answer is :- b) PVDF

3. PZT piezo- electric materials have -
Answer is :-b) Lower curie temperature

4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is -
Answer is :-d) Dependent on the concentration of the minor component in the alloy

5. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they -
Answer is :-b)Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturisation

6. The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies -
Answer is :-b) mostly in the n-region

7. The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field is -
Answer is :-d) ac

8. One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is -
Answer is :-a) Electrolytic

9. Electric shock is-
Answer is :-c) Sometimes fatal

10. A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is -
Answer is :-a) 16mF

11. A telephone relay armature is made of material with -
Answer is :-c) Negligible conductivity

12. Larger the value of filter capacitor -
Answer is :-d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by -
Answer is :-b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction

14. The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is -
Answer is :-d) depends on P or N channel

15. The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon -
Answer is :-d) Antimony

16. When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance -
Answer is :-a) is decreased

17. In case of a bipolar transistor a is -
Answer is :-d) negative and less than 1

18. A BJT is -
Answer is :-b) very sensitive to radiations.

19. An SCR may be considered to be -
Answer is :-b) 3 diodes

20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition -
Answer is :-d) IC < bIB

21. In modern MOSFET?s the material used for the gate is -
Answer is :-c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment.

29. When the network has 10 nodes and 17 branches then the number of different node pair voltages would be -
Answer is :-b) 9

30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to terminals A and B when frequency is -
Answer is :-c) 4rad/s

31. When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz and the effective height of the antenna is 30 m then the calculated value of the radiation resistance is -
Answer is :-c) 15.8 W

32. Shannon?s law relates -
Answer is :-d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio

33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is -
Answer is :-c) TE01 mode

34. For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is given by (Where the symbols have the usual meanings ) -
Answer is :-b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ?

35. The advantages of wave guides over co-axial lines would include which of the following features-
1. Easier to use 2. lower power losses
3. Higher operating frequencies possible
Answer is :-c) 2 and 3

36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 and R2 such that the standing pattern in the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) should be -
Answer is :-b) 225 and 25 respectively

37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by -
Answer is :-a) Same cut off frequencies but different field distribution

38. A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 and Er2=1, the angle of incidence for total reflection is -
Answer is :-a) 30 0

39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a -
Answer is :-c) Figure of eight

40. Permeance is the -
Answer is :-c) reciprocal of the reluctance

41. One of the following which is an active transducer is -
Answer is :-d) Photo emission

42. The wein bridge uses only -
Answer is :-d) Capacitors and Resistors.

43. The greater the value of Q -
Answer is :-b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.

44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is -
Answer is :-d) stray fields.

45. Moving iron instruments -
Answer is :-b) do not have a linear scale

46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one select -
Answer is :-d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA

47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has to be done because -
Answer is :-c) the armature current produces heating effect

48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by -
Answer is :-c) G parameters

49. Consider the following statements -
A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3 phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using
1. Two wattmeters
2. One wattmeter
3. Three wattmeters
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Answer is :-b) 1 and 3

50. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to -
Answer is :-a) Produce a constant voltage

51. Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the column -
Column A Column B
A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled negative resistance
B) MOSFET 2. High current gain
C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation
D) Zener diode 4. High input impedance
Codes :
A B C D
Answer is :-b) 2 4 1 3

52. A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-
Answer is :-b) low current , large voltage.

53. In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is continuous or discontinuous -
Answer is :-b) depends both on the type of load and firing angle delay

54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in amperes is -
Answer is :-c) 10

55. In the performance of single phase and three phase full converters the effect of source inductance is to
Answer is :-c) reduce the output voltage

56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under -
Answer is :-c) forced commutation in step up CCs

57. Power transistors are more commonly of -
Answer is :-a) silicon npn type.

58. C is a -
Answer is :-b) High level language

59. What will be output of program
main ( )
{ int i ;
print f (?Enter value of i?);
scant (?%d?, & i);
if ( i = 5 )
print f (?you entered 5?);
else
print f (?you entered %d?, i ); }

if user entered 100 then
Answer is :-a) 5

60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16-
Answer is :-b) 139

61. Two?s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all bits accepts-
Answer is :-a) MSB are zeros

63. . Transistors with high frequency have -
Answer is :-a) Thick base

64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of -
Answer is :-d) Erlangs

65. In a Hartley oscillator -
Answer is :-a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid and plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit.

66. The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator -
Answer is :-a) Linearly but the discharge is non linear

67. In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled and hence difficult to understand when an ac input current is large enough to drive the output to -
Answer is :-c) Either saturation or cut off

68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as -
Answer is :-a) Flags

69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is -
Answer is :-c) 100


72. . If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is -
Answer is :-b) D flip flop


74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is -
Answer is :-b) 0.707 rad/sec


78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -
Answer is :-a) 17.340

79. For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -
Answer is :-b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.

80. Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as ?
Answer is :-a) Frequency division multiplex

81. Identify the wrong statement-
The radar cross section of a target -
Answer is :-d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.

82. Considering following parameters -
1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?
Answer is :-b) 2, 3 and 4

83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -
Answer is :-a) poor front-end rejection

84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -
Answer is :-a) 262 1/2

85. In a TV receiver the color killer -
Answer is :-a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.

86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of the cable is-
Answer is :-c) 0.1 mH/m

87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -
Answer is :-a) distortion less transmission

88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -
Your Answer is ?
Answer is :-b) Lower mismatch error

89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -
Answer is :-c) Over coupled

90. The critical frequency is always -
Answer is :-a) Lower than maximum usable frequency

91. The PIN diode based on -
Answer is :-c) Negative resistance

92. Which antenna having circular polarization -
Answer is :-c) Helical antenna

93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -
Answer is :-c) 10

94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -
Answer is :-a) 30 H

95. In instruction cycle first operation is -
Answer is :-c) Opcode fetch

96. CMP instruction comes under group -
Your Answer is ?
Answer is :-d) Logical operations.

97. In which logic operation does not effect any flags -
Answer is :-d) CMA

98. What happen when CALL instruction executed -
Answer is :-c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock

99. The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -
Answer is :-d) Accumulator

100. The decoder is a logic ckt that -
Answer is :-b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p

101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how ????? he was -
Answer is :-c) assiduous

102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -
Answer is :-c) sign

103. What is the correct meaning of prudish.?
Answer is :-a) careful

104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -
Answer is :-b) hair ? hairs

105. Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-
Abut is
Answer is :-d) Adjoin

106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -
Answer is :-b) Kanchenjunga

107. German silver is an alloy comprising -
Answer is :-a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc

108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar?s mausoleum is in -
Answer is :-c) Yangon

109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -
Answer is :-b) 11 September 2001

110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -
Answer is :-d) 2-1

111. Which planets in the solar system are known as ?Inferior Planets? -
Answer is :-d) Mercury and Venus.

112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -
Answer is :-b) Amravati

113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -
Answer is :-a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh

114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?
Answer is :-c) Elephanta

115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the new ordinance ?POTO? is -
Answer is :-d) 23

116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?
Answer is :-c) Alakananda

117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -
Answer is :-d) Retina

118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -
Answer is :-b) 42nd Amendment

119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -
Answer is :-d) Guru Govind singh

120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -
Answer is :-c) 29

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - VII
1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A 'trimmer' capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) 'Tunning up' a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET's have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin's equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
BSNL Recruitment / Placement Paper previous years for GE JTO Exam
30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points 'r'
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in --- amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to ---dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Question paper previous years exam last. 2007 2008
70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –


a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown in figure


72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at - 2. The gain margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper for GE JTO free. BSNL Placement Examination Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 2009 sample paper. solutions / answer keys coming soon!
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary 'may' indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav's case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - VI
1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency series circuit is-
a.) Inductive
b.) Capacitive
c. )Resistive
d.)None
2. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -
a.) 107
b. )105
c. )10-4
d. )10-6
3. The output of a piezoelectric crystal has-
a. )Low amplitude and low impedance
b. )High amplitude and high impedance
c. )Low amplitude and high impedance
d.)High amplitude and low impedance
4. The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –
a. )6ms
b. )10ms
c. )15ms
d.) 25ms
5. The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –
a.) Thinner wire
b.) Longer wire
c.) Shorter wire
d.) Thicker wire
6. A cavity resonator can be represented by –
a.) An LC circuit
b.) An LCR circuit
c.) A lossy inductor
d.) A lossy capacitor
7. Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –
a.) Core saturation
b). Hysterisis loss
c.) Flux leakage
d.) Transformer action
8. Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -
a.) Its capacitance is decreased
b.) Its capacitance is increased
c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected
d. )Capacitor is discharged
9. For current to flow, a circuit must be –
a.) Isolated
b). Insulated
c.) Complete
d.) Protected
10. Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –
a.) 10-20 w/m2
b). 10-13 w/m2
c.) 10-6 w/m2
d.) 10-3 w/m2
11. A FET operates on –
a). Majority carriers only
b). Minority carriers only
c). Positively charged ions only
d.) None
12. An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –
a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle
b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle
c.) nothing can be said
d.) none
13. In CRT aquadag carries -
a. )aqueous solution of graphite
b. )sweep voltage
c. )secondary emission electrons
d.) none of the above

14. From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B
should be -
a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B
b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A
c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B
d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B
15. When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –
a. )8mA
b. )160 hA
c. )1mA
d. )7.84mA
16. MOSFET can operate in –
a. )Depletion mode
b. )Enhancement mode
c. )Depletion-only mode
d. )Both a & b
17. For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –
a.)
d.) None

18. The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –
a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant
b.) insulate the surface electrically
c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer
d.) all the above
19. One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –
a.) NPN germanium transistor
b.) NPN silicon transistor
c.) PNP germanium transistor
d. )PNP silicon transistor.
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20. With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –
a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.
c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.
d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
21. For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –
a.) 50 watts
b) 50 watts
c. )1500 watts
d. )15000 watts
22. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –
a.) 0.2A
b.) 0.4A
c.) 0.6A
d.) 0.8A

23. In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-
a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages
b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs
c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully
d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
24. The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –

25. For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –
a. )2, 1, 5
b. )2, 6, 7, 8
c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5
d. )2, 3, 4

26. Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –
a. )voltage level
b.) impedance level
c.) power level
d.) voltage, power or impedance level
27. When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –

28. For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –
a. )Thevenin's theorem
b.) Maximum power transfer theorem
c.) Millman's theorem
d.) Superposition theorem
29 The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –
a. )KVL
b.) KCL
c.) Ohm's law
d.) Both b and c
30. When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –
31. For a lossless line-
1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero
3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite
a. ) 1 & 2
b. )2 & 3
c. ) 2 & 4
d.)3 & 4
32. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-
a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square
d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square
33. When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-
a. ) 5.00 kw
b.) 7.69 kw
c.) 8.47 kw
d.) 9.17 kw
34. The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -
a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen
b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen
c.) Oxygen and water vapour
d. )Nitrogen and water vapour
35. The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -
a.) 2
b.) 1
c. ) 4/ p
d.) p/4
36. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -
a.) Increases with increasing frequency
b.)Decreases with increasing frequency
c. )Is independent of frequency
d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range

37. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-
a.) 3fc
*

38. When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –
a.)j 0.033
b.)0.8 + j 0.6
c.) 1
d.)2
39. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-
a.)High frequencies
b.)Ultra-high frequencies
c. Microwave frequencies
d.)Optical frequencies
40. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-
a. )100%
b. )150 %
c. )50%
d.) 0%
41. Reluctances in series are –
a. )Subtractive
b.) Additive
c.) Multiplicative
d.) None.
42. When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –
a. )X is more sensitive
b.) Y is more sensitive
c. )both are equally sensitive
d.) not possible to determine from the given data.
43. In the context of ac bridge measurement the term "Wagner Ground" means –
a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.
b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.
c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.
d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.
44. The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –
a. )cannot handle MHz signals
b.) cannot handle GHz signals
c. )can handle GHz signals
d.) none.
45. De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –
a. )simplicity
b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors
c. )perfect balance for air capacitors
d.) maximum sensitivity.
46. A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –
a. )reducing the power dissipation.
b. )reducing the switching time
c. )increasing the value of b
d.) reducing the base current.
47. The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –
a. )Energy meters
b.) Ammeters
c. )Wattmeter
d. )Voltmeters
48. A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –
a. )true rms value
b.) dc value
c.) peak value
d. )rms plus dc value
49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-
a. )thermocouple
b.) rectifier
c.) chopper
d. )transducer
50. Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?
a. )Ac voltmeter
b. )CRO
c. )Headphones
d.) Vibration galvanometer.
51. In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –
a.) The power factor
b.) The line current
c.) Both a and b
d.) The line current and increases power factor
52. In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be
style="height: 48236; left: 16; position: absolute; width: 528; z-index: 2; mso-ignore: vglayout; top: 13795; margin-left: 168px; margin-top: 78px">
self-inductance having resistance
b. )A capacitance
c. )A non-Inductive resistance
d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel
53. SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –
a. )Electrical connection to external circuit
b.) Physical strength
c. )Isolation
d. )Conducting path
54. For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-
a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
55. In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-
a) 0.955
b. )0.827
c.) 1.654
d. )1.169
56. In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.
a. )6, 900
b. )3, 450
c. )4, 600
d.) 3, 400
57. A four quadrant operation requires-
a. )two full converters in series.
b.) two full converters connected back to back.
c.) two full converters connected in parallel.
d.) two semi converters connected back to back
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

58. In voltage source inverters-
a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,
b. )Both o and io depend on z,
c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z
d. )both o and do not depend on z
59. For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-
a. )should alternate on real axis
b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis
c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis
d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.
60. The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate - cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-
a.) over voltages, over currents.
b. )over currents over voltages.
c. )over currents, noise signals
d. )noise signals, over voltages.
61. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a.)A resonant circuit is used as load
b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive
d. )None of the above
62. The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -
a. ) Parallel connection
b.) Cascode connection
c. ) Darlington connection
d. )Cascade connection
63. Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -
a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit
b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor
c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit
d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.
64. In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-
a. ) The majority carriers
b.) The minority carriers
c. ) Nothing can be said
d. )None of the above
65. Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-
a. )Cannot exceed unity
b. )Is always constant
c. ) Is dependent on input signal
d. )Depends on output impedance
66. Random-access-memory means –
a. )memory in a random fashion
b. )memory in a zigzag fashion
c. )memory in a circular fashion
d. )memory in a square fashion
67. BCD code is –
a. )an alphanumeric code
b. )a binary code
c .) the same thing as binary numbers
d. )non-weighed
68. The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -
a.) 900 and –00
b. )-900 and 900
c. )-1800 and 1800
d. )None of the above
69. Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –
a. )8 bit
b.) 4 bit
c. )6 bit
d.) 10 bit
70. A bistable multivibrator is used as a –
a.) Free running multivibrator
b.) Frequency multiplier
c.) Frequency divider
d. )Wave shaper
71. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –
a. )900 and -00
b. )–900 and 900
c. )–1800 and 1800
d. )none of the above.
72. A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –
a. )0 sec
b. )0.56 sec
c. )5.6 sec
d.) infinity.

73. To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-
a.) Strain Gauge
b.) Load cell
c. )Synchro
d.) Thermistor

74. The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –
a. )4
b. )4/3
c. )2

75. Considering control system in the given fig .
For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool
sensitivity will be given by-
a.) 1: (1+GH)
b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1
c. )1 : (1-GH)
d. )1 : (1-GH)-1
76 The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-
a. )Increase the bandwidth
b.) Prevent noise effects
c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.
d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.
77. )Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-
a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.
b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.
d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced –
78. Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –
a.) A dc power supply and regulator
b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission
c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment
79. In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-
a.) At the transmitter
b.) In the channel
c.) In the information source
d.) At the destination
80. The given circuit is a –
a.) Monostable multivibrator
b.) Frequency division circuit
c.) Miller sweeps circuit
d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit
81. In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-
a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.
b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900
c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800
d.) None of above.
82. Directional coupler is a function of-
a.) Two port wave-guide
b.) Four port wove guide
c. )Single port wave-guide
d.) Size port wave-guide.
83. Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –
a.) It increases power of signal
b.) To match any load with generator
c. )To get phase shifted o/p
d.) To differentiate load & generator
84. In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -
a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary
b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction
c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary
d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary

85. Crystal diode works on principle of –
a. )Negative resistance
b. )Positive resistance
c. )Square low
d.) Linear impedance
86. In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –
a. )Domain mode
b. )Delayed domain mode
c. )Quenched domain mode
d. )LSA mode
87. In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-
a. )eR
b. )ee
c. )el
d. )eR , ee, el
88. The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –
a.) Their distance from transmitter is long
b.) Wave power is weak
c. )Improper polarization of wave
d.) Frequency of waves
89. 8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-
a. )2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d. ) None
90. No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-
a.)32
b.) 64
c. ) 128
d.) 256
91. Is two byte instruction-
a.) MOV A, B
b.) ANA B
c.) MV I B, 92 H
d.) LHLD 2050 H
92. Banch instructions-
a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.
b. )only sets flogs according to results.
c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting
d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.
93. What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-
Loop DCX B 6
MOV A, C, 4
ORA B 4
JNZ Loop 10
system clock freg. = 2 MHz.
a. ) 10 m s
b.)12 m s
c.) 14 m s
d. 16 m s
94. After execution of pop statement-
a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2
b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2
c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1
d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1
95. Labels are used as an alternative for-
a.) Data
b.) Register name
c.) Memory address
d) Stack pointer
96. Microprogramming is a technique-
a) For programming the microprocessor
b.) For writing small programs efficiently
c. )For programming the control steps of computer
d.) For programming o/p / i/p
97. 00110010 – 01000101 =?
a.) 00010011
b. )11101101
c. )11100011
d. )11100100
98. When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-
a.) Address of the array
b. )Values of elements of array
c.) Number of elements of array
d. )Address of the first element of the array
99. A write cycle time means-
a.) Minimum length of write pulse
b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end
c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation
d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends
BSNL Recruitment / Placement Paper previous years 2007 2008 free download here. Examination question papers free here..

100. If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-
a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) OR
d. )NAND.
101. Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –

102. Which logic family is most faster-
a.) ECL
b.) DCTL
c.) RTL
d) TTL
103. For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-
a.) both i/p must be positive
b.) both i/p must be negative
c.) any one of i/p must be positive
d.) undefined condition
104. Supercilious is –
a. )Harighty
b.) High brow
c.) Angry
d.) Inane.
105. Give the synonym of 'moribund'-
a.) Undertaking
b.) Burial
c.) Leather bound
d.) Dying
106. The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?
a.) Duration
b.) Time
c) Direction
d.) Position
107. According to the writer what influences our dreams-
a. )inner censorships
b.) the stories
c. )the tales
d) none.
108. Vaunted is –
a.) Unvanquished
b.) Fell.
c.)Belittled
d.) Exacting.
109. The sun rays falls vertically on -
a.) Tropics
b.) Doldrums
c.) Poles
d.) Equator
110. Trimurti is associated with -
a.) Ellora
b.) Ajanta
c.) Khajuraho
d.) Elephant caves
111. In which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?
a.) 1930
b.) 1929
c.) 1928
d.) 1942
112. Director of CBI-
a.) D.C Sharma
b.) A. M Shrivastava
c.) P.C Sharma
d.) P.C Dole
113. Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -
a.) P. gopichand
b.) P. T Usha
c.) Sachin Tendulkar
d.) Gurpreet Singh
114. During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?
a.) Id-Ul-Fitr
b) Id-ul-Zuha
c. )Milad-un-Nabi
d.) Any time
115. Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!
a.) 79 and 10
b.) 80 and 29
c. )95 and 14
d.) None can be produced synthetically
116. Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -
a.) 30 km
b. ) 32 km
c.) 34 km
d.) 35 km
117. Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -
a.) Bimal Jalan
b.) C. Ranga Rajan
c. )Rana Malhotra
d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
118. The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -
a )Pope John Paul II
b.) Pope John Paul I
c.) Pope John Paul III
d. )Pope John Paul V
119. Uranium is found in the state of -
a.) Orissa
b.) A. P
c.) Karnataka
d. )Bihar
120. Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-
a. )Karachi
b.) Peshawar
c. )Ellipse
d.) Paraboloid

PAPER PATTERN

Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers(Telecom)
For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers, an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:
SCHEME
A. Engineering Stream Section - I
B. Engineering Stream Section - II
C. General Ability Test Section - III
1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of an Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.
3. The syllabus for engineering stream papers will be as given below.

SYLLABUS SECTION - I
1. Materials and components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.

2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.

3. Network theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.

6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

SECTION-II
1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.

3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.

4. Communication systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalisation; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.

5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.

7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.

SECTION-III General ability test
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

BSNL PAPER ON 20TH JUNE,2008

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
a) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c) The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d) The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.


2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
a) Polarization
b) Conductivity
c) Structural homogeneties
d) Ionization

3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon
a) Boron b) Indium c) Germanium d) Antimony

4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
a) High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c) High thermal conductivity and low melting point
d) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point

5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
a) infrared region b) ultraviolet region c) visible region d) x-ray region

6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
a) high and high b) low and high c) high and low d) low and low

7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
a) odd harmonics b) even harmonics c) fundamental component d) dc component

8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
a) mutual inductance between two coils only
b) self inductances of the two coils only
c) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d) none

9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
a) paper b) rubber c) ceramic d) Mylar

10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
a) always positive
b) always negative
c) sometime positive, sometime negative
d) numerically less than its kinetic energy

11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel b) gate c) P-N junctions d) substrate

12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a) it is more sensitive
b) it is more linear
c) it is less temperature dependent
d) it's cost is low

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
a) thermally generated electrons and holes
b) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c) migration of minority carriers across the junction
d) flow of drift current

14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
a) recombine with holes in the base
b) recombine in the emitter itself
c) pass through the base to the collector
d) are stopped by the junction barrier

15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is –
a) 0.5 b) 0 c) 1.0 d) 0.8

16. A UJT can
a) be triggered by any one of it's three terminals
b) not be triggered
c) be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d) be triggered by all of its terminals only

17. An SCR can only be turned off via it's
a) cathode b) anode c) gates d) none

18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to
a) increase the recombination rate
b) reduce the recombination rate
c) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d) make silicon semi-metal

19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have
a) (b + n) links b) b – n + 1 links c) b – n – 1 links d) b + n + 1 links

20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 45

21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
a) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power
b) an output power which is one – half of the input power
c) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power

22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer –
a) the terminals are kept shorted
b) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c) the terminals are kept open circuited
d) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals

23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2 ?
1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W
a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 2 and 4

24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
a) 49w b) 60w c) 70w d) 140w

25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC – AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) 4 alone is correct

27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
a) will become half
b) will remain high
c) will become double
d) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known

28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum is-
Ans. 5.4x109xQ2/r where Q=4/3(pie)r3d

29. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
Ans. y

30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
a) R/2 ohms b) R ohms c) 2R ohms d) 4R ohms

31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a) TE111 and TM111
b) TE011 and TM011
c) TE022 and TM111
d) TE111 and TM011

32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly
a) 0.19 b) 0.81 c) 0.97 d) 1.19

33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a) Zero b) IF c) 4pF d) OF

34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a) d = 1.5 cm
b) d is less then 1.5 cm
c) d is greater than 1.5 cm
d) d = 3cm

35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is
a) 0.89159 % b) 8.9159 % c) 89.159 % d) 891.59 %

36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a) 5 KHz b) 15 KHz c) 75 KHz d) 200 KHz

37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
a) sinusoidal b) square c) rectangular d) triangular

38. Strain gauge is
a) not a transducer
b) an active transducer
c) not an electronic instrument
d) none

39. A high Q coil has
a) large band width b) high losses c) low losses d) flat response

40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
a) 1.810% b) 0.181% c) 18.10% d) 0.0018%

41. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
a) High frequency, large signal operation
b) High frequency, small signal operation
c) Low frequency, small signal operation
d) Low frequency, large signal operation

42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on –
a) Values of input in the past and in the future
b) Values of input at that time and in the past
c) Values of input at that time and in the future
d) None

43. A iron cored choke is a
a) Linear and active device
b) Non linear and passive device
c) Active device only
d) Linear device only

44. Pointing vector wattmeter uses
a) Seebeck effect b) Ferranti effect c) Induction effect d) Hall effect

45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a) Thermocouple b) Piezoelectric pick – up
c) Photo voltaic cell d) LCD

46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
a) Converter system b) Inverter c) Chopper d) Thyristor

47. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
a) SCR b) PCR c) VCR d) DCR

48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
a) constant voltage source
b) constant current source
c) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d) resistance

49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
a) electrons only b) electrons or holes c) electrons and holes d) holes only

50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively
a) ferrite : 20 : 1
b) laminated iron : 1 : 1
c) ferrite : 1 : 1
d) powdered iron : 1 : 1

51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a
a) 1 phase full converter
b) 3 phase half wave converter
c) 3 phase semi converter
d) 3 phase full converter

52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
a) square wave b) triangular wave c) step function d) pulsed wave

53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with center tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
a) 100V b) 141.4V c) 200V d) 282.8V
54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
a) T keeping Ton constant
b) Ton keeping T constant
c) Toff keeping T constant
d) None of the above

55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b) of change of stats from gas to metal.
c) the energy supplied is greater than the work function
d) the energy is greater than Fermi level.

56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is –
a) amplifier b) triode c) diode d) transistor

57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a) Either cathode
b) Either anode
c) The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d) Either plate

58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
a) Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b) Reduce the noise
c) Increase the noise
d) Not effect the noise

59. Match the given feedback circuit with it’s proper nomenclatures

a) Current series feedback
b) Current shunt feedback
c) Voltage series feedback
d) Voltage shunt feedback


60. Class A amplifier is used when
a) No phase inversion is required
b) Highest voltage gain is required
c) dc voltages are to be amplified
d) Minimum distortion is desired

61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor

a) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
b) Depletion type N channel MOSFET
c) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
d) Depletion type P channel MOSFET

62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be
a) Distortionless
b) Small in amplitude
c) Having higher frequencies suppressed
d) Distorted

63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is
a) 7411 b) 7404 c) 7400 d) 7408

64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
a) left shift register b) right shift register c) shift registers d) none of the above

65. The expression ABC can be simplified to
Ans. A + B + C

66. An ideal power supply consist of
a) Very small output resistance
b) Zero internal resistance
c) Very large input resistance
d) Very large output resistance

67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by

68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
a) count pulses
b) store binary operation
c) shift registers
d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip

69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
a) 1111101 b) 0001 0010 0101 c) 7D d) None of the above

70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 200

71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in
a) Unit parabolic function.
b) Unit triplet.
c) Unit doublet.
d) Unit ramp function.

72. Read the following;
i. Routh Hermitz`s criterion is in time domain.
ii. Root locus plot is in time domain.
iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain.
iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
a) 2, 3, and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) All four are correct.

73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
a) 150 b) 450 c) 300 d) 600

74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
a) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.
b) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.
c) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.
d) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.
75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function
a) –40dB/dec to –20dB/dec
b) 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec
c) –20dB/dec to –40dB/dec
d) 40dB/dec to –20dB/dec
76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
77. In a closed – loop transfer function
the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be
78. Considering the following statement :
In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct
79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
a) ANIK
b) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1)
c) WESTAR
d) MOLNIYA
80. --- watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
a) 100 b) 500 c) 2000 d) 1000
81. The ripple factor in an LC filter
a) Increases with the load current
b) Increases with the load resistance
c) Remains constant with the load current
d) Has the lowest value
82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
a) Language digits b) Access digits c) Area codes d) Central office codes
83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
a) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
b) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
c) its use avoids receiver complexity
d) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
a) linear amplifier
b) harmonic generators
c) class C power amplifiers
d) class B untuned amplifiers
85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
a) maximum power of the transmitter
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) width of the transmitted pulse
d) sensitivity of the radar receiver
86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
a) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
b) help vertical synchronization
c) help horizontal synchronization.
d) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
87. The frequency range 30MHz – 300MHz is
a) medium frequency
b) very high frequency
c) super high frequency
d) Infrared frequency
88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
a) TE b) TM c) TEM d) HE
89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
a) upto 18kms from earth
b) from 18 to 70 km
c) 70 to 500 km
d) above 500 km
90. A two cavity klystron tube is a
a) velocity modulated tube
b) frequency modulated tube
c) Amplitude modulated tube
d) simple triode
91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get
a) doubled b) quadrupted c) unchanged d) halved
92. Which one is a cross field tube
a) Klystron b) Reflex Klystron c) Magnetron d) TWT
93. The degree of coupling depends on
a). size of hole
b). location of holes
c). size and location of holes
d). not depend on size or location of hole
94. The thermal noise depends on
a) direct current through device
b) resistive component of resistance
c) reactive component of impedance
d) load to connected
95. The charge on a hole is
Ans. 1.6x10-19
96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
a) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
b) amplifies the output of local oscillator
c) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency
d) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
97. A duplexer is used to
1) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
2) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
3) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
4) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference
98. Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains
a) seven 8 bit registers
b) 8 seven bits registers
c) seven 7
d) eight 8
99. Boolean algebra is based on
a) numbers b) logic c) truth d) symbols
100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get - - gate
a) XOR b) AND c) NAND d) NOR
101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new - -
a) Era of great history b) List c) Book d) Year
102. An - - though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
a) Funny poem b) Newspaper article c) Orthodox talk d) Elegy
103. If stare is glance so gulp is
a) Sip b) Tell c) Salk d) Admire
104. He hardly works means
a) The work is hard
b) He is hard
c) The work is easy
d) He works very little
105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
a) antipathy b) unsightliness c) inexperience d) languor
106. Nanometre is - - - - part of a metre.
a) Millionth b) Ten millionth c) Billionth d) Ten billionth
107. Malaria affects
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Intestine d) Lungs
108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an
a) Aircraft carrier
b) Submarine
c) Multiple-purpose fighter
d) Anti-aircraft gun
109. With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated?
a) Best film director
b) Best musician
c) Best documentary
d) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry
110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
a) Aryabhatta b) Newton c) Einstein d) Archimedes
111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?
a) M.P. b) U.P. c) Assam d) W. Bengal
112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
a) 24th October b) 4th July c) 8th August d) 10th December
113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
a) Gupta architecture
b) Rashtrakuta architecture
c) Chalukya architecture
d) Chola architecture
114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
a) Joint sitting of the two Houses
b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India
d) By a special committee for the purpose
115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa?
a) Meghdoot
b) Raghuvansha
c) Sariputra Prakarma
d) Ritushamhara
116.Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
a) Akbar the Great
b) Mahmud Ghaznvi
c) Shah Jahan
d) Alauddin Khilji
117. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from
a) Vedas b) Bhagwad Gita c) Mundaka Upanishada d) Mahabharata
e) None of these
118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
a) USA b) USSR c) China d) Pakistan
119. "Kathakali" dance is connected with
a) Kerala b) Rajasthan c) Uttar Pradesh d) Tamil Nadu
120. The term "Ashes" is associated with
a) Hockey b) Cricket c) Soccer d) none of these

English

1. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :

1. You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither

2. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

3. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
d) None of these

4. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President’s Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned

5. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner

6. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003

7. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW

8. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869

9.
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership

10. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10

11. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian

12. India’s first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome

13. Name the author of the famous book “Politics”-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them

14. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution

15. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these

16. Which country in July ‘99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China

17. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland

books

ramesh mtnl elect & telecom engg. guide
gk publisher guide to bsnl jr. telecom officer examination (jto)
Upkars bsnl junior telicom officers recrutment examination
author:- pk. mishra and jain

can u pls mail the model question papers atleast